Hey Everybody,

I bought a used engine and had it delivered to my mechanic. He called to tell me the next day that there was no compression in the engine, request another one. The place I bought the engine from sent a technician who came to the conclusion that the cause of failure was, and I quote: "Internal engine failure consistent with jumped timing from improper installation." Does this sound wrong just to me??

 

While I'm not sure how the technician came to that conclusion (there a few different ways of determining if a timing belt is off by a tooth or two), it is extremely possible for a timing belt that isn't installed properly to cause a zero compression condition. The question here is, did your mechanic replace the belt or not. If he didn't, then it's up to the seller of the engine to fix it; if he did, then he needs to fix it himself.

 

Shipo,
He just installed the engine, he did not touch the timing belt because I was told that the engine "was in grade A" condition. Plus he told me that he never "opened" the engine.

Thx.

 

It should be readily apparent if the timing cover has been opened recently. If it has not then there's no way the seller can do anything but "man-up" and replace your motor for you.